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Stephanie Watson is 23 years old and has accumulated $4,000 in her self-directed defined contribution pension plan. Each year she contributes $2,000 to the plan and her employer contributes an equal amount. Stephanie thinks she will retire at age 67 and figures she will live to age 81. The plan allows for two types of investments. One offers a 3.5% risk-free real rate of return. The other offers an expected return of 10% and has a standard deviation of 23%. Stephanie now has 5% of her money in the risk-free investment and 95% in the risky investment. She plans to continue saving at the same rate and keep the same proportions invested in each of the investments. Her salary will grow at the same rate as inflation. -How much does Stephanie currently have in the safe account; how much in the risky account?


A) $3,800, $200
B) $2,000, $2,000
C) $200, $3,800
D) $2,500, $1,500
E) $1,500,$2,500

F) B) and D)
G) B) and C)

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The objectives of personal trusts normally are __________ in scope than those of individual investors and personal trust managers typically are __________ than individual investors.


A) broader, more risk averse
B) broader, less risk averse
C) more limited, more risk averse
D) more limited, less risk averse
E) none of the above

F) B) and E)
G) None of the above

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Target-date retirement funds


A) change their asset allocation as time passes
B) are a simple but useful strategy
C) function much like hedge funds
D) A and B
E) all of the above

F) A) and B)
G) All of the above

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The principle of duration matching is not


A) used only in bond portfolio management
B) a useful concept for investments with target dates
C) a means matching one's assets to one's objectives
D) B and C are correct
E) none of the above

F) A) and E)
G) A) and B)

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Questionnaires and attitude surveys suggest that risk tolerance


A) increases with age.
B) decreases with age.
C) stays constant over the life cycle for most investors.
D) cannot be assessed.
E) none of the above

F) B) and E)
G) A) and B)

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Deferral of capital gains tax I.means that the investor doesn't need to pay taxes until the investment is sold. II.allows the investment to grow at a faster rate. III.means that you might escape the capital gains tax if you live long enough. IV.provides a tax shelter for investors.


A) II and III
B) I, II, IV
C) I, III, and V
D) II, III, and IV

E) B) and C)
F) A) and C)

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U.S.mutual funds are restricted to holding no more than __________ of any publicly traded corporation.


A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 25%
E) There is no restriction on percentage ownership.

F) A) and D)
G) A) and B)

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Target-date retirement funds are not


A) inappropriate for most investors
B) very high in fees
C) designed to function much like hedge funds
D) A and B
E) all of the above

F) A) and B)
G) A) and D)

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An important benefit of Keogh plans is that


A) they are not taxable until funds are withdrawn as benefits.
B) they are protected against inflation.
C) they are automatically insured by the Federal government.
D) A and B.
E) A and C

F) A) and B)
G) C) and D)

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A

The stage an individual is in his/her life cycle will affect his/her __________.


A) return requirements
B) risk tolerance
C) asset allocation
D) A and B
E) A,B,and C

F) A) and B)
G) None of the above

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E

Which of the following investments does not allow the investor to choose how to allocate assets?


A) Variable Life insurance policies
B) Keogh plans
C) Personal funds
D) Tax qualified defined contribution plans
E) Universal Life policies

F) A) and E)
G) All of the above

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Variable life insurance


A) combines life insurance with a tax-deferred annuity.
B) provides a minimum death benefit that increases subject to investment performance.
C) can be converted to a stream of income.
D) all of the above.
E) none of the above.

F) C) and E)
G) A) and C)

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D

The prudent investor rule requires __________.


A) executives of companies to avoid investing in options of companies by which they are employed
B) executives of companies to disclose their transactions in stocks of companies by which they are employed
C) professional investors who manage money for others to avoid all risky investments
D) professional investors who manage money for others to constrain their investments to those that would have been approved by the prudent investor
E) none of the above

F) A) and B)
G) D) and E)

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The feedback phase of the CFA Institute's investment management process


A) uses data about the client and capital market
B) uses details of optimal asset allocation and security selection
C) uses changes in expectations and objectives
D) A, B, and C
E) none of the above

F) None of the above
G) A) and B)

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General pension funds typically invest __________ of their funds in equity securities.


A) none
B) 5-10%
C) 15-35%
D) 40-60%
E) more than 60%

F) B) and E)
G) A) and B)

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Pension funds I.accept contributions from employers,which are tax-deductible. II.pay distributions that are taxed as ordinary income. III.pay benefits only from the income component of the fund. IV.accept contributions from employees,which are not tax-deductible.


A) I and IV
B) II and III
C) I and II
D) I, II, and IV
E) I,II,III,and IV

F) A) and E)
G) A) and C)

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The investment horizon is:


A) the investor's expected age at death.
B) the starting date for establishing investment constraints.
C) based on the investor's risk tolerance.
D) the date at which the portfolio is expected to be fully or partially liquidated.
E) none of the above.

F) B) and D)
G) A) and D)

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The principle of duration matching is


A) used only in bond portfolio management
B) a useful concept for investments with target dates
C) means matching one's assets to one's objectives
D) B and C are correct
E) none of the above

F) A) and E)
G) A) and B)

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__________ center on the trade-off between the return the investor wants and how much risk the investor is willing to assume.


A) Investment constraints
B) Investment objectives
C) Investment policies
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

F) A) and E)
G) C) and D)

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The first step a pension fund should take before beginning to invest is to __________.


A) establish investment objectives
B) develop a list of investment managers with superior records to interview
C) establish asset allocation guidelines
D) decide between active and passive management
E) none of the above

F) D) and E)
G) A) and B)

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